Sep 11, 2018

ATA25

Equipment
VIII of XVIII

Q 01: You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle the white light illuminates. What does it mean?
A: There is residual pressure in the cabin.
B: The ramp is not correctly positioned.
C: The slide is still armed.
D: Somebody is trying to open the door from outside.

Q 02: Which situation will automatically illuminate the escape path lighting?
A: The loss of power to the DC ESS SHED bus and The loss of power to the AC bus #1
B: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED bus and The loss of power to the AC bus #1
C: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED and the loss of power to the DC ESS SHED
D: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED

Q 03: When the door arming lever is in the ARMED  position, opening the door from the outside will:
A: Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.
B: Disarm the door.
C: The power assist will rapidly open the door.

Q 04: With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if AC bus #1 is unpowered:
A: The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.
B: The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.
C: Both are correct.

Q 05: Opening an emergency overwing exit will:
A: Inflate the slide at the leading edge of the wing.
B: Automatically inflate the double lane slide off the trailing edge of the wing.
C: Only arm the overwing slide.

Q 06: Although no busses are unpowered, illumination of emergency exit lights in the cabin is desired. Which of the following answers are correct?
A: The emergency lights, exit signs and the floor paths markings will illuminate if the guarded EMER EXIT LT pb on the flight attendant CIDS panel is selected ON.
B: The emergency lights, exit signs and the escape path markings will illuminate if the cockpit EMER EXIT LT switch is  ON.
C: Both are correct.

Q 07: The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximately ______ minutes.
A: 10
B: 15
C: 16
D: 18

Q 08: What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?
A: The hood collapses to the point that it touches  your face or by a flashing red light in addition to the flashing green light.
B: The sound of the oxygen flow stops and flashing red and green lights appear.
C: No 02 supply indications, & lights only indicate time.
D: All of the above.

Q 09: How is crew oxygen provided?
A: From a single bottle.
B: There is one bottle per crew member except for jumpseaters
C: Oxygen generator.
D: One oxygen bottle with an oxygen generator.

Q 10: What cockpit lighting is available during an Emergency Electrical Configuration (EEC)?
A: All lights are fully functional.
B: Dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light.
C: Dome light (right side only), main panel flood vlights, and the standby compass light.
D: Dome light(right side only), main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby compass light.

Q 11: On the cockpit overhead panel there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT LT switch. What lights are associated with this switch?
A: Exit signs, emergency lights, and floor path lights.
B: Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and floor path lights.
C: Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main  panel flood lights, and the standby compass light.
D: Exit signs,  and the standby compass light.

Q 12: What is Crew Oxygen minimum pressure, where can it be read?
A: 850 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.
B: 950 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
C: 1000 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
D: 1300 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

Q 13: There is no other way of deploying the overwing escape slide if it fails to deploy automatically on opening the emergency exit.
A: True.
B: False.
(Note - If it fails to deploy automatically the overwing escape slide can be deployed using the red manual inflation handle in the overwing exit.)

Q 14: What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?
A: Cancels the EVAC alert
B: Silences EVAC signals throughout the cabin  and cockpit.
C: Silences Horn in cockpit.
D: None of the above.

Q 15: The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on  what type fires?
A: Electrical fires only.
B: Electrical and burning metals.
C: Electrical and flammable liquid fires.
D: Electrical and ordinary combustibles.

Q 16: With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed bus #1 is unpowered:
A: The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.
B: The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.
C: Both are correct.

Q 17: Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
A: OFF switch.
B: Only able to deactivate from cabin (#1 Flight attendant).
C: COMMAND switch.

D: HORN SHUT OFF.


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ATA36

Pneumatic
XVIII of XVIII


Q 01: Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by:
A: Engine oil.
B: A pre-cooler that uses fan air.
C: Conditioned air from the mixing unit.

Q 02: If BMC1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except:
A: Engine 1 and APU leak detection.
B: Overheat detection.
C: Automatic crossbleed valve control.

Q 03: Bleed air normally comes from the _______ of the engine.
A: High pressure stage.
B: Intermediate stage.
C: Low pressure stage.

Q 04: In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:
A: The engine spools up automatically.
B: Engine power has to be increased by the pilot.
C: Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel.

Q 05: The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is _______ or _______ airflow occurs
A: Downstream / low / reverse
B: Downstream / High / reverse
C: Upstream / low / reverse

Q 06: The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode:
A: True
B: False

Q 07: The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:
A: The pylons and APU.
B: The wings and pylons.
C: The wings and fuselage.

Q 08: The APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber for an APU:
A: Overheat.
B: Malfunction.
C: Bleed leak.

Q 09: The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:
A: An engine bleed valve is open.
B: The APU bleed valve is open.
C: When engine start is selected.

Q 10: Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to which area?
A: The pneumatic duct; upstream of the packs.
B: The avionics compartment.
C: The Mixing unit.

Q 11: Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by:
A: One zone controller and two pack controllers.
B: Two pack controllers and the BMC’s.
C: The BMC’s

Q 12: Should both channels fail in a zone controller:
A: Temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller.
B: Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost.
C: The pack is not affected.

Q 13: The lavatory/galley extract fan operates:
A: Only on the ground.
B: Only in flight.
C: Continuously when electrical power is available.

Q 14: If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will go to what rate?
A: Low.
B: Medium.
C: High.

Q 15: What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?
A: The outflow valve opens immediately.
B: The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
C: Normal outflow valve control is maintained.

Q 16: When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
A: True.
B: False

Q 17: How many motors are available for the outflow valve?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3

Q 18: Transfer between the two cabin pressure controllers is:
A: Accomplished with a switch overhead.
B: Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails.
C: Automatically at each takeoff.

Q 19: The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:
A: 300 ft/min.
B: 750 ft/min.
C: 1000 ft/min.

Q 20: The third motor (manual) in the pressurization system is activated:
A: Automatically if both automatic motors fail.
B: In sequence after each landing.
C: When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN.

Q 21: When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm; the vertical speed display on ECAM _______.
A: 800 / flashes green
B: 2800 / flashes green
C: 1800 / flashes green

Q 22: The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:
A: Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting
B: Wing anti-icing.
C: Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
D: All of the above.

Q 23: High pressure air has ______ sources.
A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
(Note: Three Sources of HP air are -Engine bleed systems, APU load compressor and HP ground connection.)

Q 24: With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when:
A: The valve position differs from that of the push button.
B: The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
C: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
D: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT.

Q 25: Air bleed from the engines is:
A: Not cooled prior to being used by the systems.
B: Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section.
C: Cooled using ambient air.
D: Only cooled in air conditioning part.

Q 26: If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails:
A: All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail.
B: The associated bleed valves close.
C: The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions.

Q 27: A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air ducts.
A: True.
B: False.

Q 28: When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:
A: Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
B: The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
C: The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the associated side will continue to function.

Q 29: Each bleed valve is electrically operated and controlled pneumatically by its associated BMC.
A: True.
B: False.
(Note - Each bleed valve is pneumatically operated and controlled electrically by its associated BMC.)

Q 30: If a BMC detects a bleed leak:
A: The crew must isolate the affected leak.
B: All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close.
C: All pneumatic valves close automatically.

Q 31: If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary:
A: Overpressure
B: Overtemperature
C: Wing leak
D: All of the above.

Q 32: Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:
A: Detection loops associated with BMC #1.
B: Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
C: The APU BMC.
D: All of the above.

Q 33: With the loss of pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will:
A: Remain in its current position.
B: Assume the mid position.
C: Assume the open position.
D: Assume the closed position.

Q 34: Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:
A: One bleed monitoring computer.
B: Two bleed valve computers.
C: Two bleed monitoring computers.

Q 35: ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed?
A: Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.
B: All the time.
C: Only when a ground air supply is connected.

Q 36: In automatic mode, the crossbleed valve opens when the system is using APU bleed air.
A: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except during engine start).
B: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except in flight).
C: It closes automatically if the system detects an air leak.

Q 37: What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the corresponding engine bleed valve?
A: HP valve closes.
B: HP valve opens, if stage closed.
C: HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration.

Q 38: When additional pneumatic air is required for anti-ice, engine starting, or air conditioning:
A: Additional pneumatic air will be requested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU.
B: The crew must observe minimum N1 limits.
C: Both are correct.

Q 39: When selected, APU bleed air:
A: Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb’s are selected OFF.
B: Has priority over engine bleed air.
C: Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
D: Does not have priority over engine bleed air.

Q 40: With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will:
A: Only supply bleed air to the left side.
B: Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens.
C: Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
D: Only supply bleed air to the right side.

Q 41: Which source controls the crossbleed valve?
A: Pneumatic.
B: Electric.

Q 42: The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:
A: Engine, engine high pressure, APU.
B: Engine, intermediate pressure, APU.
C: Engine, APU, crossbleed.
D: Crossbleed.

Q 43: APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system if the APU speed is above _____:
A: 80%
B: 85%
C: 92%
D: 95%

Q 44: A check valve near the crossbleed duct protects the APU when bleed air comes from another source:
A: True.
B: False.

Q 45: Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you only use one pack if Wing Anti Ice (WAI) is on?
A: Only one user can be supplied via the X BLEED duct.
B: Only ENG BLEED system cannot supply 2 packs and WAI.
C: If you use WAI, the X BLEED valve is automatically closed. Therefore, pack 1 will no longer be supplied.
D: One engine bleed system can either supply both packs or one pack plus WAI.

Q 46: Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits the temperature at:
A: 150°C
B: 85°C
C: 60°C
D: 200°C


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HAPPY LANDINGS!

ATA35

Oxygen
XVII of XVIII


Q 01: On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the oxygen cylinder?
A: The PRESS page.
B: The DOORS page.
C: The COND page.
D: The STATUS page.

Q 02: What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight?
A: An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.
B: This is normal indication, the green thermal plug  only appears if the oxygen cylinder is low.
C: The crew oxygen bottle is empty.
D: An external fire discharge has been activated.

Q 03: Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
A: 15 minutes.
B: 20 minutes.
C:25 minutes.
D: 30 minutes.

Q 04: What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system?
A: There is no difference: both are served by oxygen  cylinders.
B: Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder;  passengers are supplied by chemical oxygen generators .
C: Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.
D: The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply.

Q 05: What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?
A: When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the Captain & F/O only (jumpseats are not supplied)
B: When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew’s masks.
C: In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the  crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system.

Q 06: What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?
A: Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
B: Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.
C: Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
D: Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

Q 07: At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
A: 10,000 feet (+100, - 500 ft)
B: 12,500 feet (+ or - 500 ft)
C: 14,000 feet (+0, - 500 ft)
D: 15,000 feet.

Q 08: What does an amber OXY on the ECAM Doors mean?
A: The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi.
B: The crew supply switch is turned off
C: Oxygen pressure is less than 650 psi.
D: Oxygen pressure is less than 300 psi.

Q 09: Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:
A: The crew must depress the MASK MAN ON pb in order  to deploy the masks.
B: Electrical power has been sent to deploy the  masks, either manually or automatically.
C: The crew oxygen cylinder is empty.
D: All of the passenger masks have deployed.

Q 10: There are oxygen generators in each aircraft’s galley.
A: True.
B: False.

Q 11: What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?
A: A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the masks.
B: It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
C: Both are correct.

Q 12: When does passenger oxygen flow start?
A: When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
B: When the oxygen doors open.
C: When the oxygen button is pushed.

D: When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 ft'


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