Flight Controls
X of XVIII
Q 01: The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.
A: Electrically / hydraulically
B: Mechanically / hydraulically
C: Electrically / electrically
Q 02: What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
A: SEC 1
B: FAC 1
C: ELAC 2
Q 03: Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both sidesticks are operated:
A: The inputs cancel each other.
B: Both inputs are algebraically added.
C: The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input.
Q 04: Roll control is achieved by:
A: Ailerons
B: Ailerons and rudder.
C: One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
D: Ailerons, rudder and spoilers
Q 05: When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:
A: Go to the centering mode.
B: Pitch up 5 degrees.
C: Droop 5 degrees.
Q 06: If electrical power to a SEC fails:
A: The affected spoilers automatically retract.
B: All spoilers automatically retract.
C: The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.
Q 07: If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:
A: Speed brake extension is inhibited.
B: Aileron travel is reduced.
C: Speed brake extension travel is reduced.
Q 08: Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:
A: Lost.
B: Maintained by the other actuator.
C: Reduced.
Q 09: Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:
A: Elevator and rudder.
B: Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
C: Speed brakes and rudder.
Q 10: Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.
A: True
B: False
Q 11: Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______ are extended.
A: Flaps
B: Slats
C: Gear
Q 12: Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _____ while the manual rudder trim rate is ______ up to a maximum of ______.
A: 5 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 20 degs
B: 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs
C: 8 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 10 degs
D: 8 deg/sec - 5 deg/sec - 10 degs
Q 13: Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of:
A: Asymmetry and overspeed only
B: Asymmetry, overspeed and slow movement
C: Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement
D: All of the above
Q 14: While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
A: True
B: False
Q 15: In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:
A: Manual without the autopilot engaged.
B: Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
C: Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
Q 16: Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:
A: Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).
B: Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
C: Load factor is less than 1G.
D: First two statements are correct
Q 17: In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection mode when the angle of attack is greater than:
A: Alpha Max
B:Alpha Prot
C: Alpha Floor
Q 18: TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the autothrottle system.
A: Alpha Max
B: Alpha Prot
C: Alpha Floor
Q 19: Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:
A: Ailerons and spoilers.
B: Ailerons, spoilers and rudder.
C: Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder.
Q 20: The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:
A: Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.
B: Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.
C: Help slow the airplane down.
D: First two statements are correct.
Q 21: With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.
A: Direct
B: Normal
C: Alternate
Q 22: When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:
A: Remains the same.
B: Degrades to pitch direct law.
C: Degrades to pitch backup law.
Q 23: In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be overridden by the sidestick.
A: True
B: False
Q 24: In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to a _______ mode.
A: Mechanical
B: Alternate Law
C: Alternate law
D: Abnormal Attitude law
Q 25: To select speed brakes inflight:
A: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.
B: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
C: Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
Q 26: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SEC’s)?
A: Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
B: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.
C: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
Q 27: The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is depressed.
A: True.
B: False
Q 28: Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button?
A: The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.
B: If the a takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push button is released.
C: Both are correct.
Q 29: Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup?
A: Yes, the ailerons.
B: Yes, the spoilers
C: Yes, the THS and the rudder.
D: No, there aren’t any control surfaces with mechanical backup.
Q 30: What control surfaces do the FACs control?
A: The elevators.
B: The spoilers.
C: The rudder.
D: All of the above.
Q 31: Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?
A: THS.
B: Rudder trim.
C: Both are correct.
Q 32: What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?
A: ELAC functions are transferred the SEC’s.
B: ELAC functions are transferred to FAC’s.
C: SEC functions are transferred the ELAC’s.
D: The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.
Q 33: The alpha speed lock function:
A: Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
B: Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
C: Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.
Q 34: In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft’s maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded?
A: 'Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made.
B: Yes, until maximum pitch attitude is reached.
C: No. At Maximum “G” load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds.
D: No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive “G” loads.
Q 35: Which controls are used for the mechanical backup?
A: Ailerons and rudder.
B: THS and rudder.
C: Elevators and airlerons.
D: THS and elevator.
Q 36: Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:
A: Require hydraulic power for actuation.
B: Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls.
C: Both are correct.
Q 37: Selection of flaps one prior to takeoff will select which of the following?
A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).
C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1).
Q 38: Which of the following statements best describes the Load Alleviation function(LAF)?
A: Helps the pilot control the airplane.
B: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons and spoilers.
C; Relieve wing structure loads by deflecting only the spoilers.
D: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons.
Q 39: When ground spoilers deploy automatically:
A: All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
B: Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
C: All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.
D: Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
Q 40: The FAC’s primarily control which control surface?
A: Elevator.
B: Rudder.
C: Aileron.
D: Elevator and aileron.
Q 41: Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?
A: Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft.
B: Max altitude for extension is 22, 000 ft.
C: Max altitude for extension is 25, 000 ft
D: Max altitude for extension is 27, 000 ft.
Q 42: The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?
A: A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
B: To reduce structural stress, the slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip brakes.
C: To avoid asymmetry, the outer slats are locked in their present position.
D: Because of the locked flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the slats.
Q 43: Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?
A: SEC
B: ELAC
C: ADIRU
D: ADC
Q 44: How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many hydraulic sources supply these actuators?
A: 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
B: 1 hydraulic source with 2 actuators.
C: 4 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
D: 3 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
Q 45: If both FAC’s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
A: It immediately assumes the low speed position.
B: It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.
C: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
D: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.
*Note: FCOM Says – “If both FACs fail, full rudder deflection is available, when the slats are extended”
Q 46: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC’s)?:
A: Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
B: Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.
C: Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS.
D: Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
Q 47: The wing tip brakes, once activated:
A: Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position
B: Lock only the flaps in their current position.
C: Lock only the slats in their current position.
D: Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position,,
Q 48: Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?
A: Two ELAC’s.
B: Wing tip brakes.
C: One slat flap control computer (SFCC).
D: Two slat flap control computers (SFCC’s).
Q 49: The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant control.
A: True.
B: False.
Q 50: What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode?
A: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 30° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.
B: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 45° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.
C: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 40° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO.
D: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 35° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches to 10° to slow down to VMO/MMO - 20 kt.
Q 51: What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the spoilers?
A: Flaps FULL.
B: Flaps 3.
C: Spoilers are not approved for in-flight use.
D: Flaps 10.
Q 52: What are the rudder trim rates?
A: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 1 deg/sec.
B: A/P on - 2 1/5 deg/sec, A/P off - 5 deg/sec.
C: A/P on - 3 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.
D: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.
Q 53: Can the crew make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?
A: No. The system is designed to avoid such an attempt.
B: Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.
Q 54: Can you manually trim the rudder with the autopilot engaged?
A: Yes.
B: No.
Q 55: When is the Flight Mode active?
A: From takeoff until landing.
B: From liftoff until landing
C: From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA.
D: From takeoff until passing 50 kts on landing (main shock absorbers depressed)
Q 56: Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight.
A: True.
B: False.
*Note - It is only active where aircraft is in flight.
Q 57: The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law.
A: True.
B: False.
*Note - It is the same as in Normal Law.
Q 58: In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected?
A: 33°
B: 49°
C: 67°
D: 70°
Q 59: Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:
A: Activate the wing tip brakes.
B: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.
C: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.
D: Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.
Q 60: FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the following?
A: The MCDU perf page.
B: The lower ECAM F/CTL page.
C: Both pilot’s PFD airspeed displays.
D: All of the above.
Q 61: Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?
A: The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.
B: The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
C: The position of the flap handle.
Q 62: The wing tip brakes are:
A: Pneumatically actuated.
B: Electric brakes.
C: Hydraulically actuated.
D: Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
Q 63: Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?
A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).
C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F).
Q 64: The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.
A: True.
B: False.
Q 65: What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?
A: The bank stays at 40°
B: The aircraft rolls back to 25°
C: The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.
D: The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°.
Q 66: When is alpha floor not available?
A: Out of normal law.
B: Below 100 feet RA in landing configuration.
C: If the A/THR is deactivated or unavailable.
D: All of the above.
Q 67: What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law?
A: G-load protection with a reduced factor.
B: Speed Stability
C: Full G load protection and speed stability
D: G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.
Q 68: In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps Full
A: 30° nose up.
B: 35° nose up progressively reduced to 20°
C: 25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed.
D: There is no limit.
Q 69: You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down and a dual radio altimeter fault.
A: True.
B: False.
Q 70: When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law?
A: Never. It goes directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected down.
B: When selecting Flaps 1
C: At glide slope interception.
Q 71: Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law.
A: True.
B: False.
*Note - You get yaw damping only.
Q 72: If both pilots deflect their side sticks fully back:
A: The “pitch up” order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected.
B: The “pitch up” order is 1.5 times higher as high as with only one stick deflected.
C: No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pushbutton on his stick.
D: The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection.
Q 73: To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the active stick. Holding the button down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the other stick out until its own red take-over button is pushed again.
A: True.
B: False.
Q 74: Let’s assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after more than 40 seconds.
A: The Captain’s side stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.
B: The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight
C: Both sticks are active
D: The Captain’s side stick is active as long as the F/O’s side stick is in neutral position.
Q 75: What condition will cause auto flap retraction?
A: Exceed 210 kts at Flaps 1
B: Exceed 190 kt at Flaps 1.
C: Exceed 195 kt at Flaps 1
D: Exceed 190 kt with Flaps 1 while extending the speedbrake lever.
Q 76: What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC’s fault?
A: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected.
B: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 5 is selected.
C: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to the low speed limits for increased control.
Q 77: What happens to high speed (VMO/MMO) when you are in Alternate Law?
A: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO minus 10 kt.
B: VMO is reduced to 330 kt and MMO minus 10 kt
C: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO does not change.
D: There is no change.
Q 78: Can the rudders be moved with both FAC’s inoperative?
A: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended
B: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained
C: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the gear is extended or flaps extended at 1 minimum
D: No,
Q 79: The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to command movement.
A: True.
B: False.
Q 80: Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?
A: Yes.
B: No.
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